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Grammar question


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M3GA MAN
Title: The Big A
Joined: Jun 19 2008
Location: Nowhere.
PostPosted: Dec 19 2010 11:42 pm Reply with quote Back to top

Is it possible to make the phrase "That word is awesome." into "That word's awesome." or something along those lines or no?
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UsaSatsui
Title: The White Rabbit
Joined: May 25 2008
Location: Hiding
PostPosted: Dec 19 2010 11:48 pm Reply with quote Back to top

um...yes?
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Blackout
Title: Captain Oblivious
Joined: Sep 01 2007
Location: That Rainy State
PostPosted: Dec 19 2010 11:52 pm Reply with quote Back to top

I reckon.
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Shut up, Dorn
Title: White Chocolate
Joined: Jan 04 2008
Location: Grate Whyte Norf
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 12:15 am Reply with quote Back to top

In speech and informal writing it is acceptable, but in formal writing, contractions are frowned upon.


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Mr. Satire
Joined: Jun 08 2010
Location: Termina Field
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 03:02 am Reply with quote Back to top

Uh... I... guess... so...

WHY DO YOU ASK?


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Spanish Meatloaf
Title: Denim Clad Road Warrior
Joined: Feb 24 2010
Location: Olympia, WA
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 03:06 am Reply with quote Back to top

you can't do that.
It's like saying that the word owns "awesome"


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lavalarva
2011 SNES Champ
Joined: Dec 04 2006
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 04:13 am Reply with quote Back to top

I'll ask one too : is it only acceptable to contract the verb "to have" when it's in one of those "perfect" verb tenses?

Example :
I've had a horse.
He's had a horse.

I've a horse.
He's a horse.
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Pandajuice
Title: The Power of Grayskull
Joined: Oct 30 2008
Location: US and UK
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 07:23 am Reply with quote Back to top

I've a horse is perfectly acceptable and is kind of an old school way of speaking.

He's a horse however doesn't work because "he's" without the perfect tense equates to "he is" which is obviously not what you want to say.
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Alowishus
Joined: Aug 04 2009
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 10:20 am Reply with quote Back to top

lavalarva wrote:
I'll ask one too : is it only acceptable to contract the verb "to have" when it's in one of those "perfect" verb tenses?

Example :
I've had a horse.
He's had a horse.

I've a horse.
He's a horse.


Why don't you just say i had a horse instead of i have had a horse?
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Syd Lexia
Site Admin
Title: Pop Culture Junkie
Joined: Jul 30 2005
Location: Wakefield, MA
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 11:59 am Reply with quote Back to top

Shut up, Dorn wrote:
In speech and informal writing it is acceptable, but in formal writing, contractions are frowned upon.

That is what she said!
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GPFontaine
Joined: Dec 06 2007
Location: Connecticut
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 12:02 pm Reply with quote Back to top

M3GA MAN wrote:
Is it possible to make the phrase "That word is awesome." into "That word's awesome." or something along those lines or no?

Adding 's to the end of the word can be a contraction for:
* is
* does
* has
* us (Sometimes)

This needs to be very clear through the context of the sentence it is used in. Also, it usually works best when informally spoken rather than when written.

For what it is worth, The Oatmeal likes to make a point about these types of things:
http://theoatmeal.com/comics/apostrophe



 
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Blackout
Title: Captain Oblivious
Joined: Sep 01 2007
Location: That Rainy State
PostPosted: Dec 20 2010 04:37 pm Reply with quote Back to top

Syd Lexia wrote:
Shut up, Dorn wrote:
In speech and informal writing it is acceptable, but in formal writing, contractions are frowned upon.

That is what she said!

I also would have accepted Thus spake she, verily!



 
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